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Slick
April 10th, 2003, 05:28 PM
The popular answer on how research cost varies with low, medium and high research cost is:

Low tech cost: LC*L
Mid tech cost: LC*(L^2)/2
High tech cost: LC*(L^2)

where LC is the initial Level Cost and L is the Level

However for L=1 and L=2, Mid tech cost is less than Low.

Are these formulae correct?

Slick.

[ April 10, 2003, 16:31: Message edited by: Slick ]

raynor
April 10th, 2003, 05:43 PM
At L=1, you just use the base cost listed in the data file.

With Mid Tech cost, 2^2/2 = 2 is twice as much as the starting cost.

narf poit chez BOOM
April 10th, 2003, 11:02 PM
well, it doesn't seem to be that nice and neat when i tried high tech costs - or is that fixed in gold?